Catrin Lewis
Active Member
Years ago I got into an argument with my younger sister about Shakespeare. She argued he didn't exist because his name was spelled in more than one way; ergo, he was made up. Like she'd never been taught how recently spelling has been standardized.I've heard it said that Shakespeare's works were written by fellows called de Vere or Marlowe, or Bacon ... which stems out of a biased point of view, viz. Shakespeare's humble birth. The argument is that someone who didn't go to university couldn't write such beautiful poetry and plays, or know so much about "foreign" places.
What this viewpoint ignores is the fact that London in Shakespeare's time -- and for centuries before, and after -- was and is a major port, and Shakespeare would've heard stories of "foreign places" from sailors, merchants, and (eventually, when his star rose) courtiers. All this would've stirred his already-fertile imagination -- not to mention that some of his plays (especially the histories, and some of the tragedies -- e.g. Macbeth) centre on the British Isles, so he wouldn't have had to leave England to hear the original stories.
So sorry, Shakespeare authorship questioners, but your question is bollocks.![]()
If I'd known then what I know now, I'd retort that in that case, she--- and I--- don't exist either, because our RL surname (her maiden name at the time) gets misspelled and bollixed up in all sorts of ways.